ADPP Past Paper 2019

Here you will find the Assistant District Public Prosecutor (ADPP) Past Paper 2019. ADPP past papers are very beneficial during preparation. These MCQs are a collection of the most important topics that were given in the ADPP examination. So if you about to sit in the competitive examination of ADPP then you must read out all the past questions in this ADPP past paper.

Assistant District Public Prosecutor (ADPP) Past Paper 2019

The following questions were given in the ADPP past paper:

Control of Narcotic Substance Act (1997)

The following question is taken from the Control of Narcotics Substance Act 1997:

1. Any person who knowingly alienates or transfers any assets in respect whereof any order has been made under Section 37 or Section 40 shall be guilty of an offence punishable, on conviction, with imprisonment for a term which may extend to:

A. Five years and with fine
B. Four years and with fine
C. three years and with fine or without fine
D. none of these
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2. Punishment for acquiring property in relation to which proceedings have been taken under this Act. Any person knowingly acquires any assets, which have been frozen under this Act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term, which may extend to:

A. Five years and with fine
B. Four years and with fine
C. three years and with fine or without fine
D. none of these
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3. Administrator appointed under the Section of Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997:

A. 65
B. 44
C. 47
D. none of these
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4. Who is appointed as a judge of special Courts having the power to try all offences:

A. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
B. Sessions Judge
C. Both a & b
D. Additional Sessions Judge
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5. A remand may be granted by the nearest Special Court comprising a:

A. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
B. Sessions Judge
C. Both a & b
D. Additional Sessions Judge
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6. A. cases where the sentences of an offence is two years or less, shall stand transferred to the respective Special Court comprising a:

A. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
B. Sessions Judge
C. Both a & b
D. Additional Sessions Judge
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7. According to Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997. Special Prosecutor is appointed by:

A. Provincial Government
B. District Government
C. Federal Government
D. none of these
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8. The Federal Government may appoint a Special Prosecutor who is an:

A. Advocate of a High Court
B. Sessions Judge
C. Judge of a Court
D. none of these
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9. Bail shall mot be granted to an accused person charged with an offence under this Act or under any other law relating to narcotics where the offence is punishable with:

A. Death
B. 6 years
C. 9 years
D. none of these
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10. Which Government shall register all addicts within their respective jurisdiction for the purpose of treatment and rehabilitation of addicts:

A. Provincial Government
B. District Government
C. Federal Government
D. none of these
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11. Which Government shall bear all expenses for first time compulsory detoxification or de-addiction of an addict:

A. Provincial Government
B. District Government
C. Federal Government
D. none of these
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12. The Federal Government may, by notification in the official Gazette, constitute a Fund under section 54 is called:

A. National Fund for Control of Drug Abuse
B. Narcotics Task Force
C. Anti Narcotics Task
D. Narcotics Control Board
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13. There are ________ classes of Special Courts to try offences:

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. none of these
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14. Where the Special Court convicts an accused under Section 13, or sentences him to imprisonment for more than ______, the Director-General or an officer authorized by him may request the said Court by an application in writing along with a list of the assets of the convict:

A. Seven years
B. Four years
C. Three years
D. none of these
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15. Where the _______ satisfied that any assets specified in the list referred to in subsection (1) were derived, generated or obtained in contravention of section 12 are liable to be fortified under section 19, it may order that such assets shall stand fortified to the Federal Government:

A. Special Court
B. Supreme Court
C. High Court
D. none of these
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16. Where any order under _____________ is made by for freezing of any assets, any alienation or transfer of such assets by any manner or mode shall, till the conclusion of the proceedings under this Act, or until such order is vacated, be void, and if such asset is subsequently forfeited to the Federal Government, any such alienation or transfer of assets shall be deemed to be of no effect whatsoever:

A. Section 33 or Section 48
B. Section 37 or Section 40
C. Section 34 or Section 46
D. none of these
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17. An appeal against the order of a Special Court comprising a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge shall lie to__________:

A. Special Court
B. Supreme Court
C. High Court
D. none of these
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18. An appeal against the order of a Special court comprising a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge shall be heard by a Bench of not less than Judge of High Court:

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. none of these
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19. Where in the opinion of the Director-General or an officer authorized under section 21 an offence is being or has been committed, he may freeze the assets of such accused and within __________ days of the freezing shall place before the Court the material on basis of which the freezing was made:

A. Seven
B. Eight
C. Nine
D. none of these
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20. The Special Courts established under the section __________ of Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997:

A. 43
B. 44
C. 45 & 46
D. none of these
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21. Which section of Control Narcotic Substances Act, 1997 deals with Jurisdiction to try differences:

A. 43
B. 46
C. 45
D. none of these
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22. What are the total sections in Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997:

A. 78
B. 79
C. 91
D. none of these
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23. Section of Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997 ________ deals with requests for enforcement of foreign confiscation or restraining ordrs:

A. 62
B. 63
C. 65
D. 64
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24. The Dangerous Drugs Act was promulgated in:

A. 1923
B. 1930
C. 1944
D. none of these
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25. The Opium Act was promulgated in:

A. 1878
B. 1879
C. 1899
D. none of these
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26. Pakistan Narcotics Board (PNB) was set up in:

A. 1953
B. 1956
C. 1957
D. none of these
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27. Control on Narcotic Substances Act, 1997 applies to:

A. Whole of Punjab
B. Whole of Pakistan
C. Some parts of Pakistan
D. none of these
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28. Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997 came into force on:

A. 7th July, 1996
B. 7th July, 1997
C. 7th July, 1998
D. none of these
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29. The ___________ to whom a sample of any narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances or controlled substances ha been submitted for test and analysis shall deliver to the person submitting it, a signed reporting quadruplicate in the prescribed form and forward one copy thereof such authority:

A. Government Analysis
B. Special Prosecutor
C. Public Prosecutor
D. none of these
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30. Which section of Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997 of deals with the freezing of assets:

A. 35
B. 37
C. 54
D. none of these
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Juvenile Justice System Ordinance, 2000

The following question are taken from Juvenile Justice System Ordinance, 2000:

31. What is the maximum age of child is mention in Juvenile Justice System Ordinance, 2000:

A. 16 years
B. 17 years
C. 18 years
D. none of these
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32. At any stage during the _______ of a case, the Juvenile Court may, in the interest of such child, decency or mortality, direct any person to withdraw from court for such periods as the court may direct:

A. Evidence
B. Trial
C. Decree
D. none of these
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33. No child under the age of ________ shall be arrested under any of the laws dealing with the previous detention or under the provisions of Chapter VII of the Code:

A. 15 years
B. 16 years
C. 17 years
D. none of these
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34. The Juvenile Court shall, in a case where is a child is not grantee bail under sub-section (3), direct for tracing the guardian of such child and where the guardian of the child is traced out, the Juvenile Court may:

A. Immediately released the child on bail
B. Not release the child on bail
C. Not release the child on bail
D. none of these
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35. When a child of the age of _______ or above is arrested, the court may refuse to grant bail if there are reasonable grounds to believe that such child is involved in an offence which in its option is serious, heinous, gruesome, brutal, sensational in character:

A. Fifteen years
B. Sixteen years
C. Fourteen years
D. none of these
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36. Where a child is arrested for commission of an offence, the officer in charge of the ________ in which the child is detained shall, as soon as may be, inform:

A. Police Station
B. High Court
C. Session Court
D. none of these
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37. Where a child accused of non-bail able offence is arrested, he shall, without any delay and in no case later than ________ from such arrest, be produced before the Juvenile Court:

A. Twenty five hours
B. Twenty four hours
C. Sixteen hours
D. none of these
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38. The president issues ordinance when the _______ is not in session:

A. Parliament
B. Cabinet
C. Senate
D. none of these
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39. Section 6 of Juvenile Justice System Ordinance, 2000 is related to:

A. Procedure of the Juvenile Courts
B. No joint trial of a child and adult person
C. Juvenile Courts
D. none of these
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40. A place where child offender may be detained and given educational and training for their mental, moral and psychological development is called:

A. Brostal Institute
B. National Institute
C. Special Institute
D. none of these
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Probation And Parole Laws
41. Where a conclusion of an inquiry or trial, the juvenile court finds that a child has committed an offence, then not withstanding anything to the contrary contained in any law for the time being in force, the Juvenile Court may:

A. Release on Probation
B. Release on Parole
C. Release on Bond surely
D. none of these
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42. ____________ is supervision that begins after a person’s release from prison or jail after serving part of a sentence:

A. Parole
B. Sanction
C. Suffrage
D. none of these
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43. Which section of Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release Act, 1926 deals with power of government to release prisoners by license on conditions imposed by it:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. none of these
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44. License is issued by the government ___________:

A. Federal Government
B. Provincial Government
C. District Government
D. none of these
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45. A License granted under the provisions of a section 2 shall be in such form and shall contain such conditions as directed by:

A. Federal Government
B. Provincial Government
C. District Government
D. none of these
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46. Who has authority to revoke the license:

A. Federal Government
B. Provincial Government
C. District Government
D. none of these
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47. Relaxation referred to in the clause(b) of Rule 9 of the Good Conduct Prisoners Probational Release. Rules can be taken up by the Assistant Director for consideration in any of the following ways:

A. On the application of the prisoners
B. On the application of the relatives or friends of the prisoners
C. On the recommend Superintendent of the jail or on his visit of jail
D. all of above
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48. What is meant by Parole:

A. Privilege
B. Right
C. Duty
D. none of these
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49. If a person violates the terms of their parole, they can be sent back to jail to finish serving their:

A. Sentence
B. Duties
C. Period
D. none of these
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50. In the cases where the status and antecedents of an employer are not well known the Assistant Director will send the application to the _____ for verification:

A. District Coordination Officer
B. Superintendent of Police of the District
C. Both of them
D. none of these
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Medical Jurisprudence and Application of Forensic Science

The following question are taken from Medical Jurisprudence and Application of Forensic Science:

51. Science of treatment of muscular and skeleton system is known as:

A. Odontology
B. Ophthalmology
C. Pediatrics
D. Orthopedics

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52. Bone controls phosphate metabolism by releasing __________ growth factor 23(FGF-23), which acts on kidney to reduce phosphate reabsorption:

A. Reabsorp
B. Fibroblast
C. matrix
D. none of these
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53. Ossification begins with points in the cartilage called:

A. Primary Ossification centers
B. Remodeling
C. Hematopoiesis
D. none of these
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54. The normal temperature of the human body is:

A. 90* F
B. 98* F
C. 98.6* F
D. none of these
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55. By taking pulse rate of the human body a doctor determines:

A. Condition of liver
B. Amount of blood in body
C. Heart beat
D. none of these
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56. ____________ or bone turnover is the process of resorption followed by replacement of bone with little change in shape and occurs throughout a person’s life:

A. Hematopoiesis
B. Remodeling
C. Ossification
D. none of these
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57. ________________ is a disease of bone, leading to an increased risk of fracture:

A. Hematopoiesis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Ossification
D. none of these
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58. A subpoena or a summons is a document completing the attendance of a ____________ in a court of Law under a penalty:

A. Plaintiff
B. Ex party
C. Witness
D. none of these
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59.A subpoena or a summons is issued by the Court in writing, in duplicate, and signed by the presiding officer of the court. It is served on the witness by:

A. A Police officer
B. Public Servant
C. Officer of court
D. All of these
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60.The following conditions are indicative of time injury death, except:

A. Degree of digestion
B. Laceration of the hearth
C. Hair growth
D. none of these
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61. About exhumation all of the given choices are correct, except:

A. It is the taking out of the body after burial
B. It is done of purpose o identification
C. The age limit for exhumation is between 15 to 30 years after death
D. none of these
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62. The examination of blood is carried out for the purpose of the following except:

A. The identification of blood
B. The identification of its specific origin
C. The identification of blood groups
D. none of these
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63. Blood stain is confirmed by the following except:

A. Visual examination
B. Benzidine test
C. Benedict test
D. none of these
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64. Ordinary blood differs from menstrual blood by the following except:

A. Color usually bright red
B. Coagulation does not occur
C. Odour is not disagreeable
D. none of these
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65. Blood stains which are wet, brighter and starchy to feel are:

A. Half hour
B. Fresh
C. 2 hours old
D. none of these
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66. Suspected blood stains are sending to the chemical examiner in the case:

A. Murder case
B. Case of wounds
C. Sexual Offences
D. All of these
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67. Biological methods for blood stain are the following except:

A. Benzidine test
B. Precipitin test
C. Anti-human globulin test
D. none of these
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68. The test preliminary test for the blood stain is:

A. Tarayama test
B. Guaiacum test
C. Bersidine test
D. none of these
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69. In estimation time since death, the following points are helpful except:

A. Presence or absence of rigor mortis
B. Extent and character of postmortem staining
C. Site and features of cadaveric spasm
D. none of these
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70. Toxicology is that branch of medical science which deals with:

A. Poisons
B. Food
C. Tissues
D. none of these
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71. What is necropsy:

A. Anti Mortem of plants
B. Post-mortem of animals
C. Ante Mortem
D. none of these
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72. Clavcile is a bone found in the:

A. Skull
B. Arm
C. Shoulder
D. none of these
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73. Medical cuneiform is a bone found in the:

A. Skull
B. Arm
C. Foot
D. Leg
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74. The marrow, located within the medullary cavity of long bones and interstices of cancellous bone, produces blood cells in a process called:

A. Haematopoiesis
B. Reabsorption
C. Ossification
D. none of these
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75. Section 376 PPC lays down the punishment for the offence of rape which may extend from:

A. Five years of life imprisonment and also fine
B. Ten years of life imprisonment and also fine
C. Fifteen years of life imprisonment and also fine
D. none of these
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Jail Manual and Prison Laws

The following question are taken from Jail Manual and Prison Laws:

76. Classes of District prisons are:

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. none of these
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77. The Provincial Government may declare and central prison to be for all or any purposes, also a district prison under rule:

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 9
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78. No prisoner, shall, except on transfer from another prison, be admitted into any prison after the hour of lock-up for the night or before sunrise on any day under rule:

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
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79. Under what rule prisoners received after lock-up shall be confined in separate cells or any other suitable place provided for the night barracks shall not be opened for this purpose:

A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. none of these
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80. Newly admitted prisoners may be kept in quarantine for how many maximum days:

A. Three days
B. Four days
C. Five days
D. none of these
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81.When the sentences have been confirmed by the High court of is passed by the High Court, a warrant of execution will be transmitted by the Sessions Judge, or the High Court as the case may be, to the ________ in which the condemned prisoner is confined:

A. Deputy Superintendent
B. Inspector general
C. Superintendent of Prison
D. none of these
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82. The date fixed for the execution, the periods within which appeals or petitions must be submitted, and the result of the petition in each case, shall be intimated to the condemned prisoner by:

A. the Deputy Superintendent
B. Assistant Superintendent
C. Both a & b
D. none of these
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83.When a woman prisoner sentenced to death is certified by medical officer to be pregnant, the warrant with the fact noted on it, shall be returned to the Sessions judge, who is empowered to direct the postponement of the execution pending the orders of:

A. The High Court
B. The Supreme Court
C. Special Court
D. none of these
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84.Ordinary remission, other than annual and triennial remission, shall be awarded quarterly, and as nearly as possible, on

A. 1st January
B. 1st April & 1st July
C. 1st October
D. All of these
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85. What are the maximum prison labour hours in a day for prisoner:

A. 6 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 9 hours
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86. No person shall be detained or remanded _________ at a time, except in case of persons committed for trial in a Court of Sessions:

A. 14 days
B. 15 days
C. 17 days
D. none of these
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87. A prisoner sentenced to one year imprisonment on 15th January, 2003 shall be released on:

A. 14th January
B. 15th January
C. 16th January
D. none of these
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88. A convict sentenced to 1.5 months on 2nd February will be released on:

A. 14th March
B. 15th March
C. 16th March
D. none of these
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89. ____________ documents shall be sent with each prisoner on transfer:

A. Warrant or Warrants
B. Remission Sheet
C. List of Prisoner’s properly
D. All of these
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90. The scale of police escort for one prisoner:

A. Two constables
B. one head constable and three constables
C. One head constable and four constables
D. none of these
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91. Which of the following term used in Quran for prison:

A. As-ssign
B. Assera
C. Both a & b
D. none of these
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92. Masjid-e-Nabvi was used prison by Holy Prophet (S.A.A.W) for how many times:

A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. none of these
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93. Who shall keep all the valuable property belonging to the prisoners in his custody in the treasure chest in small bags or packets:

A. Senior Medical Officer
B. Deputy Superintendent
C. Superintendent
D. none of these
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94.Priosner can issue the cheque for not more than ________ at one time once a week for maintenance of his dependents:

A. 6000 Rupees
B. 4000 Rupees
C. 5000 Rupees
D. none of these
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95. Prison labour stops work at _________ in summer:

A. 3 PM
B. 4 PM
C. 5 PM
D. none of these
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96. Prison labour stops work at __________ in winter:

A. 3 PM
B. 4 PM
C. 6 PM
D. none of these
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97. A warder shall accompany prisoners on transfers when their number exceeds:

A. 24
B. 25
C. 26
D. none of these
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98. When a prisoner on transfer becomes ill as to be unable to complete the journey, he should be left at:

A. Nearest Police Station
B. Nearest Hospital
C. Any Police Station
D. none of these
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99. Under the rule __________ a prisoner who escapes on transfer shall, if recaptured, be sent to the prison from which he was dispatched. A report of the recaptured of prisoners shall be sent to the Inspector General:

A. 195
B. 196
C. 197
D. none of these
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100. Who allots the labor to prisoners:

A. Superintendent
B. Deputy Superintendent
C. Assistant Superintendent
D. none of these
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