LAW Graduate Assessment Test ( LAW GAT) is a compulsory test for enrolling as an advocate in the District Bar Associations of Pakistan. We have arranged here the Law GAT Past Papers (Test Paper 3). Law GAT is held every 3 months. The test comprises MCQs of Constitution, Jurisprudence, Civil Law, Criminal Law, Qanoon-e-Shahadat, and English language. You can also apply for LAW GAT when the date announced by visiting this link.
This is the 3rd test paper of LAW GAT. You can view Test paper 1, Test paper 2, Test Paper 4, and Test paper 5 also.
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LAW GAT Past Papers Test Paper 3
The following are the questions for Law GAT Test Paper 3:
LAW GAT Constitution MCQs
The following are the LAW GAT questions about Constitution:
1. When the Constitution Committee presented its recommendations in the form of a draft in the National Assembly?
(a) 31st December 1972
(b) 1st January 1973
(c) 23rd March 1973
(d) 21st November 1972
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2. The constitution of 1973 was proclaimed on:
(a) 8th January 1973
(b) 23rd March 1973
(c) 14th August 1973
(d) None of them
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3. The Senate consists of:
(a) 100 members
(b) 68 members
(c) 76 members
(d) 104 members
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4. When the office of Speaker is vacant who acts as a Speaker:
(a) The Chairman
(b) The Deputy Chairman
(c) The Deputy Speaker
(d) The Attorney General
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5. Member of the National Assembly must be at least:
(a) 20 years of age
(b) 23 years of age
(c) 25 years of age
(d) 30 years of age
6. There shall be sessions of the National Assembly every year:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
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7. Which amendment has ceased the powers of the President to dissolve the National Assembly?
(a) 18th
(b) 12th
(c) 14th
(d) 15th
8. The Senate is a continuous body. It’s members are elected for a term of:
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) None of them
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9. According to the 1973 constitution the president is the head of the state, assisted by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Federal Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) None of them
10. The candidate for presidency must:
(a) Not be a Muslim
(b) Be a Muslim
(c) Be a member of the senate
(d) None of them
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11. The separation of powers had created a new system of govt called:
(a) Parliamentary system
(b) Unitary system
(c) Presidential system
(d) None of these
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12. The Vice Presiden.t invited to attend the meetings of the president’s cabinet not by law but by:
(a) Courtesy
(b) By president’s invitation
(c) By necessity
(d) By convention
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13. Senate is presided over by:
(a) President of America
(b) Leader of the majority party in the senate
(c) Vice President
(d) None of them
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14. The term of US House of Representative is:
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) None of these
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15. The Indian Union comprises of:
(a) 24 states
(b) 25 states
(c) 28 states
(d) 27 states
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16. Indian Parliament is:
(a) Unicameral
(b) Bicameral
(c) Tri cameral
(d) None of these
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17. The Fifth Republic was enforced in France in:
(a) 1956
(b) 1958
(c) 1960
(d) None of these
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18. The number of amendments so far made in the US Constitution is
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 27
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19. The voting age in the USA is:
(a) 18 years
(b) 19 years
(c) 20 years
(d) None of these
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20. The Magna Carta was signed by the British King in:
(a) 1215
(b) 1216
(c) 121 7
(d) None of these
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LAW GAT JURISPRUDENCE MCQs
The following are the LAW GAT questions about Jurisprudence:
21. Distant kindred are divided into:
(a) 2 classes
(b) 3 classes
(c) 4 classes
(d) 5 classes
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22. The Doctrine of Return shall not apply to the husband nor the wife:
(a) Whatever the case may be
(b) If there’s any heir
(c) If the deceased had debt due
on him
(d) All of the above
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23. Natural law theories see positive law as an instrument to guide society towards the fulfillment of its goal. This goal is enshrined in natural law principles.
(a) True
(b) False
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24. Natural law principles are universal, eternal and independent from any given legal system. Even if a given legal order does not reflect any of the natural law principles, these principles are deemed to exist independently of positive law.
(a) True
(b) False
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25. A law that substantially deviates from ·natural law principles can be regarded as invalid as the test for the validity of a given law is its conformity with the model of what the law ought to be.
(a) True
(b) False
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26. In natural law theory, an unjust law is not a law. It, therefore, follows that there is a duty to disobey an unjust law as it is not a law, there can be no duty to obey it.
(a) True
(b) False
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27. When two objects touch, there is a transfer of material from one to the other. This trace evidence is the basis of Medical Jurisprudence. What is the idea known as?
(a) Locard’s Principle
(b) Forensic Law
(c) Bertillon’s Principle
(d) Murphy’s Law
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28. Which of the following constitutes grievous injury?
(a) Incied wound of scalp
(b) Incied wound of thigh
(c) Fracture tibia
(d) Laceration of the scalp
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29. Any inquiry into the cause of death which is apparently not due to natural causes is called:
(a) Jury
(b) Court
(c) Inquest
(d) Summon case
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30. A person who is deemed to be competent to expand the law, so as to be entitled to participate in collective juristic deliberation, is known as:
(a) Mufti
(b) Aalim
(c) Mujtahid
(d) a & b
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31. Whose book(s) is/are called Jamay Al Sahihain?
(a) Imam Bukhari
(b) Imam Muslim
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them
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32. Imam Muslim’s works of ahadis is considered as next to Bukhari’s. Who was contemporary of Imam Muslim?
(a) Imam Ibn-e-Maja
(b) Imam Jafar Saadiq
(c) Imam Bukhari
(d) Imam Maalik
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33. The brothers and sisters from one father but two mothers are called:
(a) Consanguine brother/ sister
(b) Uterine brother/ sister
(c) Residuaries
(d) None of the above
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34. Under the Sunni school of inheritance, on the failure of all-natural heirs, the estate of a deceased Shia’ Muslim escheats to:
(a) Poor
(b) Residuaries
(c) Distant kindred
(d) Government
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35. If the land has been used from time immemorial for a religious purpose, then the land is by user Waqf, although there is no evidence of:
(a) An express dedication
(b) An implied dedication
(c) a & b
(d) None of the above
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36. A male ancestor, between whom and the deceased no female intervenes, is called:
(a) True grand-mother
(b) True grand-father
(c) False grand-father
(d) False grand-mother
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37. A person may dispose of his property by will if he be:
(a) A major
(b) Sound mind
(c) Prudent
(d) All of the above
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38. According to Shia’ laws, the presence of a witness in any matter regarding is:
(a) A must
(b) Not necessary
(c) Optional
(d) none of the above
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39. A marriage may be:
(a) Valid only
(b) Irregular only
(c) Void only
(d) All of the above
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40: Marriage entered into by a female who has not yet attained puberty, is:
(a) Valid marriage
(b) irregular marriage
(c) void marriage
(d) None of the above
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LAW GAT Civil Law MCQs
The following are the LAW GAT questions about Civil Law:
41. Which of the following is not an exception to the rule No Consideration, No Contract?
(a) Compensation for involuntary services
(b) Love & affection
(c) Contract of agency
(d) Gift
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42. Which Section of The Contract Act 1872 deal with Voida liability of agreements without free consent?
(a) 12
(b) 19
(c) 11
(d) 18
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43. Which Section of The Contract Act 1872 deal with the Power to set aside contract by undueinfluence?
(a) 12
(b) 19-A
(c) 11
(d) 19
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44. What is called an agreement between two or more parties in which an offer is made and accepted, and each party benefits?
(a) Affidavit
(b) Memorandum
(c) Contract
(d) Charter
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45. Rejection of plaint will be:
(a) Decree
(b) Order
(c) Judgment
(d) None of the above
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46. Appeal may be filed against:
(a) Decree
(b) Consent Decree
(c) Every Order
(d) None of the above
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47. An Order for the issue of a commission for the examination of a witness may be made by the court under Order XXVI, rule:
(a) 1 of C.P.C, 1908
(b) 2 of C.P.C, 1908
(c) 3 of C.P.C, 1908
(d) 4 of C.P.C, 1908
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48. In any suit in which an examination adjustment of accounts is necessary, the court may issue a commission under Order XXVI, rule:
(a) 10 of C.P.C, 1908
(b) 11 of C.P.C, 1908
(c) 12 of C.P.C, 1908
(d) 13 of C.P.C, 1908
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49. Which Section of the Punjab Civil Courts Ordinance, 1962 deals with Power to distribute business?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 13
(d) 15
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50. Order XXIX deals with:
(a) Suits by or against the corporation
(b) Suits by or against trustees, executors, and administrators
(c) Suits by or against minors and persons of unsound mind
(d) Suit by propels
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51. It conclusively determines the rights of the parties:
(a) Judgment
(b) Decree
(c) Order
(d) None of the above
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52. Section of C.P.C, 1908 deals with the inherent powers of Civil Court:
(a) 100
(b) 151
(c) 561-A
(d) None of the above
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53. Under Section 152 C.P.C, 1908 amendment can be made in the:
(a) Plaint
(b) Written statement
(c) Decree-order-judgment
(d) None of the above
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54. Amendment of pleadings under Order 6 Rule 16 to deals with the:
(a) Amendment which a party desires in his own pleading.
(b) Amendment which a party desires in his opponent’s pleadings
(c) Amendment of the decree.
(d) None of the above
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55. Which order deals with the execution of decrease:
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 41
(d) None of the above
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57. Under Order 16 summons are issued to the:
(a) Parties
(b) Witnesses
(c) Defendant
(d) None of the above
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58. Substituted service by the order of the court is:
(a) As good-effectual as if it had been made personally
(b) Not as good as ordinary service.
(d) All of the above
(d) None of the above
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59. Pleadings shall contain:
(a) Material Facts
(b) Evidence
(c) Material Facts as well as evidence
(d) None of the above
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60. Order 7 Rule 10 deals with the:
(a) Return of plaint
(b) Rejection of plaint
(c) Ex-party decree
(d) None of the above
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LAW GAT Criminal Law MCQs
The following are the LAW GAT questions about Civil Law:
61. Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which any extent of:
(a) Ten years
(b) Seven years
(c) Seven years or with fine or with both
(d) Life imprisonment
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62. Criminal conspiracy means when two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done:
(a) An illegal act
(b) Or an act, which is not illegal but done by illegal means
(c) Ac act, which is illegal by law but not by tradition
(d) An act which is prohibited by religion
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63. Whoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces any person to go from any place.
(a) Is said to abduct that person
(b) Is said to Kidnap that person
(c) Is said to confine that person
(d) None of these
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64. “Punishment of Jaifah” is given in:
(a) Section 337-B of PPC
(b) Section 337-C of PPC
(c) Section 337-D of PPC
(d) Section 337-E of PPC
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65. Electoral right means the right of a person:
(a) To stand as a candidate
(b) Not to stand as a candidate
(c) Do note/not to note in an election
(d) All of the above
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66. ___ includes a solemn affirmation substituted by law for an oath, and any declaration required or authorized by law to be made before a public servant or, to be used for the purpose of proof, whether in a Court of Justice or not:
(a) Year”, “Month
(b) Section
(c) Oath
(d) Good faith
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67. The value of daman may be determined by the Court keeping in view:
(a) The expenses incurred on the treatment of the victim
(b) The loss or disability caused in the functioning or power of any organs.
(c) The compensation for the anguish suffered by the victim.
(d) All of the above
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68. ___ is gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled:
(a) Wrongful gain
(b) Wrongful loss
(c) Gaining wrongfully
(d) lose wrongfully
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69. ___ is the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled:
(a) Wrongful gain
(b) Wrongful loss
(c) Gaining wrongfully
(d) lose wrongfully
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70. Abetment of mutiny, if mutiny is committed in consequence thereof, shall be punishable with:
(a) Death
(b) Imprisonment for life with fine OR
(c) Imprisonment extendable to ten years
(d) All of the above
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71. A case in which a police officer may not arrest without a warrant is called:
(a) Cognizable offense
(b) non-cognizable offence
(c) Non-cognizable case
(d) b & c are correct
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72. Any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time being enforce is known as:
(a) Cognizable offense
(b) non-cognizable offence
(c) Offence
(d) None of the above
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73. The “Place” includes:
(a) A House
(b) A Building
(c) A tent & a vessel
(d) All of the above
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74. Which Section of Code of Criminal Procedure 1898 deals with the Mode of delivering Judgment?
(a) 421
(b) 320
(c) 423
(d) 366
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75. Which Section of Code of Criminal Procedure 1898 deals with Language of judgment and Contents of Judgment?
(a) 367
(b) 420
(c) 323
(d) 122
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76. Which Section of Code of Criminal Procedure 1898 deals with the Sentence of death?
(a) 321
(b) 368
(c) 323
(d) 332
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77. A case in which a police officer may under any law for the time being in force arrest without warrant is:
(a) Cognizable offense
(b) Cognizable case
(c) non-cognizable offense
(d) Both a & b
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78. An allegation made orally or in writing to a magistrate for an action against a person who has committed an offense excluding the report of a police officer is known as:
(a) FIR (First Information Report)
(b) Statement of the allegation
(c) Complaint
(d) None of the above
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79. A Magistrate has jurisdiction under Section 107 Cr. P.C., to proceed against any person where there is no information against him:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
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80. A report, which is made U /S 174 of Cr. P.C. is called:
(a) Statement under Section 161
(b) Challan
(c) First information Report
(d) Inquest Report
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80. A report, which is made U /S 174 of Cr. P.C. is called:
(a) Statement under Section 161
(b) Challan
(c) First information Report
(d) Inquest Report
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LAW GAT Qanoon-e-Shahadat MCQs
The following are the LAW GAT questions about Qanoon-e-Shahadat and the Law of evidence:
81. No public officer shall be compelled to disclose communication made to him in official confidence when he considers that:
(a) The image of the department would suffer
(b) It is against the public morality
(c) The public interest would suffer
(d) All of the above
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82. Which Article of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 deals with Cases in which a statement of relevant fact by a person who is dead or cannot be found, etc. is relevant?
(a) 46
(b) 43
(c) 41
(d) 42
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84. If no evidence at all were-given in a suit or proceedings the burden of proof would be on:
(a) Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which he assists
(b) Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which any other person asserts
(c) Who desires any court to give judgment as to any legal right which the public assert
(d) None of the above
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85. Article 122 of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 deals with:
(a) Burden of proof as to a particular fact
(b) Burden of proving that case of accused comes within exceptions
(c) Burden of proving fact especially within the knowledge
(d) Burden of proving the death of person known to have been alive within thirty years
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86. Which of these impressions if removed them the confession becomes relevant:
(a) Inducement
(b) Threat
(c) Promise
(d) Any of them
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87. Can confession made to a Police Officer be proved:
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Depends upon the reputation of Police Officer
(d) None of the above
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88. Which Article of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 deals with Relevancy of certain judgments in probate, etc. jurisdiction?
(a) 50
(b) 53
(c) 51
(d) 55
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89. Which Article of Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 deals with Relevancy of entry in the public record made in the performance of duty?
(a) 40
(b) 43
(c) 41
(d) 49
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90. According to article 9, an advocate shall not be permitted to disclose any communication made to him in the course of his employment as such advocate, unless:
(a) On the order of the court
(b) With his client’s implied consent
(c) With his consent
(d) b & c
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LAW GAT English Legal Language MCQs
The following are the LAW GAT questions about the English Legal Language:
91. Pacta sunt servanda means:
(a) A State can violate its international obligations if its interests so demand
(b) A State can terminate a treaty at its will
(c) A State must perform treaty obligations in good faith
(d) None of these
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92. The principle of ex injuria non oritur jus means:
(a) No benefit can be received from an illegal act
(b) A legal right flow from an illegal act
(c) A State can go to war in case of an injury
(d) None of these
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93. Extradition is granted in case of:
(a) Ordinary criminals
(b) Political and religious criminals
(c) Heads of State and Government
(d) None of these
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94. The term for which the court directs the offender to be imprisoned in default of payment of a fine shall not exceed:
(a) One-third of the maximum term fixed for imprisonment
(b) One-fourth of the maximum term fixed for imprisonment
(c) One half of the maximum term fixed for imprisonment
(d) Three fourth of maximum terms
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95. State immunity means:
(a) A state is subject to a foreign court’s jurisdiction
(b) A state is not subject to foreign court’s jurisdiction
(c) A state is not subject to its own court’s jurisdiction
(d) None of these
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96. The Contiguous Zone is:
(a) A no-man’s land between two States
(b) An area of the sea beyond territorial waters
(c) An area of the sea beyond the Exclusive Economic Zone
(d) None of these
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97. Who is the appellant?
(a) Person before an appeal is submitted
(b) Lawyer of person who appeals
(c) Person who appeals
(d) Person against whom the appeal is submitted
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98. A process of taking out a body from the grave for the purpose of the examination is called:
(a) Exhumation
(b) Anti Mortem
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them
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99. The principle of rebus sic stantibus means:
(a) A State may terminate a treaty because of a material breach
(b) A State may invoke a fundamental change of circumstance to terminate/suspend a treaty
(c) A treaty stands terminated because of the eruption of hostilities
(d) None of these
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100. Extraterritorial jurisdiction means:
(a) A State has unlimited jurisdiction
(b) A State has jurisdiction over its nationals even when they live outside the country
(c) A State has jurisdiction over foreign visiting nationals
(d) None of these
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